NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
How can the nurse promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension, the nurse should consider applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area. These interventions can help alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual may exacerbate the pain. Choice B is incorrect as immobilizing the client may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to further complications. Choice D is also incorrect because while pain medication can be used, it is not the first-line treatment for muscle pain, spasms, and tension.
Question 2 of 9
Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the grieving process, it is essential to have a support system in place. Options B, C, and D - a nurse, a social worker, and a family member, respectively, are individuals who can provide comfort, guidance, and practical assistance to someone who is grieving. However, a despondent friend, as stated in the question, is not an ideal choice for support during this period. A despondent friend is someone who is feeling extremely unhappy and discouraged, and may not have the emotional capacity to provide the needed support to a grieving individual. It is important for someone who is grieving to have support from individuals who can offer understanding, empathy, and strength, which a despondent friend may struggle to provide.
Question 3 of 9
Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.
Question 5 of 9
Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.
Question 6 of 9
In the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia, which medication is most commonly recognized?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atropine is the medication most commonly recognized for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia because it increases the rate of conduction in the AV node, helping to alleviate bradycardia. Questran is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for bradycardia. Digitalis, such as Digoxin, is used for heart failure and atrial fibrillation but not typically for bradycardia. Nitroglycerin is primarily used for angina and not bradycardia.
Question 7 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.
Question 8 of 9
How can light therapy be effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Light therapy can be effective in treating problems associated with sleep patterns, stress, moods, jaundice in newborns, and seasonal affective disorders. While light therapy may have other potential benefits, such as improving mood or helping with seasonal affective disorders, the main focus and effectiveness of light therapy are commonly linked to regulating sleep patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Working with sleep patterns.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as light therapy is not primarily used for overcoming weight problems, helping with allergies, or solely as an alternative medical treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.