NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.
Question 2 of 5
While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.
Question 4 of 5
The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.