NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.
Question 2 of 9
The LPN is preparing a client for discharge, and the discharge medications include phenobarbital. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for reinforced teaching about this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine,"? as phenobarbital should not be taken with alcohol as it is a barbiturate. Alcohol may increase the sedative effect, posing risks to the patient's safety. Choice A, "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens,"? is unrelated to phenobarbital and not a cause for reinforced teaching. Choice B, "It's best to take this medication with food,"? is a general instruction and not specific to phenobarbital. Choice D, "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day,"? is a common recommendation for medication adherence but does not highlight a specific concern related to phenobarbital.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption, it is crucial for the nurse to provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings. Most women who make this decision have done so with love and pain, and it is essential to allow them to verbalize their emotions, which may include grief, loneliness, and guilt. Referring the woman for grief counseling may be necessary if she lacks a support system or requests help to navigate her grief. Allowing the woman to see her baby is important, and the nurse should respect her wishes regarding visitation as it can aid in the grief process. While the woman does have the right to change her mind about relinquishment until final legal arrangements are made, suggesting this option may inadvertently influence her decision and should be approached cautiously. Therefore, providing emotional support and opportunities for expression are the priority strategies in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ≤350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.
Question 5 of 9
While reviewing a client's health care record, a nurse notes documentation of the presence of borborygmus on abdominal assessment. Which finding does the nurse expect to note when auscultating the client's bowel sounds?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Borborygmus, a type of hyperactive bowel sound, is fairly common. It indicates hyperperistalsis, and the client may describe it as a growling stomach. Hyperactive bowel sounds are loud, high-pitched, and rushing sounds. Hypoactive bowel sounds are low-pitched and may occur post-surgery or with peritoneal inflammation. Low-pitched bowel sounds are not typically associated with borborygmus. An absence of bowel sounds indicates a potentially serious issue like an ileus, where bowel motility is decreased or absent.
Question 6 of 9
When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a female client who has recently been diagnosed with cancer and will soon begin chemotherapy. Which of these statements would require additional follow-up and education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This client is at risk for altered body image due to chemotherapy-induced hair loss. A wig can assist in coping with this change. It is advisable for the client to shop for a wig before hair loss occurs to better match color and style. Waiting until all hair falls out may lead to stress and limited options in finding a suitable wig. Choices A, B, and D are accurate. Understanding the timing of susceptibility to infection, maintaining oral health before chemotherapy, and staying hydrated are important aspects of care during chemotherapy. Therefore, the statement 'I should wait until all my hair falls out to purchase a wig' requires additional follow-up and education.
Question 8 of 9
A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.
Question 9 of 9
The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.