NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. Peterson complains of difficulty falling asleep, awakening earlier than desired, and not feeling rested. She attributes these problems to leg pain that is secondary to her arthritis. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for her?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Peterson is 'Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain).' Mrs. Peterson's sleep issues are directly linked to her chronic leg pain, which is a result of her arthritis. This nursing diagnosis addresses the primary cause of her sleep disturbances and allows for interventions that focus on managing the pain to improve her sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A correctly identifies the relationship between sleep disturbances and chronic leg pain, addressing the root cause. Choice B is incorrect as it only focuses on fatigue and does not encompass the broader sleep issues. Choice C is not relevant as there is no indication that Mrs. Peterson lacks knowledge about sleep hygiene measures.
Question 2 of 9
A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is supervising a new nursing graduate in various procedures. Which action by the new nursing graduate constitutes a negligent act?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Negligent acts in nursing include various errors that can harm the client, such as medication errors, intravenous therapy errors, burns, falls, failure to use aseptic technique, failure to provide adequate monitoring, and failure to report significant changes in a client's condition. In this scenario, using clean gloves to change a gastrostomy tube dressing is a negligent act because sterile gloves should be used when changing a dressing over broken skin. Choices A, B, and C are not negligent acts as they involve appropriate nursing actions: giving a verbal report, checking neurological signs, and contacting a healthcare provider about a change in a client's blood pressure.
Question 4 of 9
When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.
Question 5 of 9
How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.
Question 6 of 9
After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.
Question 7 of 9
A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.
Question 8 of 9
When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
For which of the following conditions might blood be drawn to assess uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.