Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

Questions 63

NCLEX-PN

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Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

Question 2 of 5

A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.

Question 3 of 5

When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

Question 4 of 5

The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct test to differentiate between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease is hemoglobin electrophoresis. This test separates different types of hemoglobin based on their electrical charge, allowing for the identification of specific hemoglobin variants like HbS in sickle cell disease. Sickle cell preparation and Sickledex are not specific tests for this differentiation. While a peripheral smear can show sickle cells, it does not provide a definitive differentiation between the trait and the disease as it doesn't identify the specific hemoglobin variant present.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.

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