Ethics committees typically do not handle which of the following issues?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ethics committees primarily focus on addressing ethical dilemmas in healthcare. Issues like euthanasia, decisions regarding starting or stopping treatment, and the use of feeding tubes for nutritional support involve complex ethical considerations related to patient care and end-of-life decisions, which are commonly deliberated by ethics committees. However, nonpayment of bills is a financial matter and falls outside the typical scope of ethics committees' functions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Peterson is 'Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain).' Mrs. Peterson's sleep issues are directly linked to her chronic leg pain, which is a result of her arthritis. This nursing diagnosis addresses the primary cause of her sleep disturbances and allows for interventions that focus on managing the pain to improve her sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A correctly identifies the relationship between sleep disturbances and chronic leg pain, addressing the root cause. Choice B is incorrect as it only focuses on fatigue and does not encompass the broader sleep issues. Choice C is not relevant as there is no indication that Mrs. Peterson lacks knowledge about sleep hygiene measures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse.' Nurse practice acts outline the scope of practice for nurses, defining what constitutes nursing practice and the role of licensed nurses. Choice A is incorrect because hospital and long-term care facility policies are institution-specific and not typically covered in the nurse practice act. Choice B is incorrect as the scope of practice for nurses is a part of the nurse practice act, but it's not the sole purpose for a nurse to refer to it. Choice C is incorrect as health care policies in a state are governed by other legislative acts, not the nurse practice act.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.