NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.
Question 2 of 9
When removing a client's gown with an intravenous line, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when removing a client's gown with an intravenous line is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve while keeping the line intact. This method ensures that the system remains sterile and reduces the risk of infection. Temporarily disconnecting the tubing at a point close to the client or from the container introduces the potential for contamination. Cutting the gown with scissors should only be done in emergencies as it is not a standard practice and can compromise the integrity of the intravenous line. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe method is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following devices may be applicable to a bedridden patient to address potential venous insufficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a bedridden patient with potential venous insufficiency, sequential compression devices (SCDs) and compression stockings are appropriate choices. SCDs help improve venous return from the lower extremities by applying sequential pressure, aiding circulation. Compression stockings also assist in preventing blood from pooling in the legs by applying pressure to support venous return. Shear-reducing mattresses are not directly related to managing venous insufficiency, as they are designed to reduce friction and shear forces on the skin to prevent pressure ulcers. Non-skid socks are primarily used for fall prevention and have no direct impact on venous insufficiency.
Question 4 of 9
When should the biohazard emblem be affixed to containers according to the orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'when there is presence of blood and body fluids.' When handling body substances like blood and body fluids, the risk of transmission of infections increases. Federal regulations mandate warning labels on containers to alert employees and waste collectors. The biohazard emblem consists of a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, wound drainage, feces, and urine are examples of body fluids that can transmit infections and diseases to others. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the presence of the biohazard emblem is specifically linked to the handling of blood and body fluids, not to droplet precautions, contact isolation, or airborne transmission.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following foods might a client with hypercholesterolemia need to decrease intake of?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with hypercholesterolemia should decrease their intake of foods high in cholesterol. Hamburgers, being red meat, have a high cholesterol content, hence should be decreased in the diet. Broiled catfish, wheat bread, and fresh apples are not high in cholesterol, so there is no need to decrease their intake. Broiled catfish is a lean source of protein, wheat bread is a complex carbohydrate, and fresh apples are a good source of fiber and vitamins. Therefore, hamburgers are the correct choice to decrease intake for a client with hypercholesterolemia.
Question 6 of 9
The LPN is caring for a client with an NG tube, and the RN administers evening medications through the NG tube. The client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After administering medication through an NG tube, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to advise the client to lie down in 1 hour. Choice B is incorrect because waiting only 30 minutes may not provide sufficient time for the medications to be fully absorbed, as the recommended time is 30 minutes. Choice C is misleading as it incorrectly suggests that lying down in about 30 minutes is acceptable, which could compromise medication effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide accurate information regarding the appropriate timing for lying down after NG tube medication administration, potentially leading to decreased medication absorption.
Question 7 of 9
The client has a new prosthetic hip, and the nurse is repositioning them. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'adduction of the hip.' When a client has a new prosthetic hip, adduction (movement of the leg toward the midline of the body) should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip. Abduction (movement of the leg away from the midline) is typically allowed and may even be encouraged. Flexing the hip at certain degrees is acceptable, but adduction should be avoided to prevent complications or dislocation of the prosthetic hip. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a direct risk to the new prosthetic hip compared to adduction.
Question 8 of 9
The LPN is preparing to clean a client's PEG tube.The following tasks should the nurse perform EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When cleaning a client's PEG tube, the nurse should perform tasks that focus on gentle cleaning and avoiding potential irritants. Choice A is correct as gently removing crusty drainage helps maintain hygiene. Choice C is important to prevent skin irritation and infection. Choice D is appropriate for cleaning the area. Choices B and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because pulling the tube in multiple directions can lead to dislodgement or injury. Choice B is incorrect as talcum powder may irritate the stoma, and it is generally not recommended near PEG tubes.
Question 9 of 9
Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.