How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Questions 70

NCLEX-PN

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Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.

Question 3 of 9

A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.

Question 4 of 9

All of the following tasks could be delegated to a nursing assistant or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring an intravenous infusion involves assessing for complications, adjusting the flow rate, and monitoring the client's response, which requires the knowledge and skills of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN). Tasks that can be delegated to nursing assistants or unlicensed assistive personnel include assisting a client to the bathroom, offering fluids, and recording fluid intake. These activities are within the scope of practice for UAPs as they do not involve the specialized knowledge and training needed for intravenous infusion monitoring.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

Question 6 of 9

The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

Question 8 of 9

When providing perineal care to a female client, how should the nurse perform the procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When providing perineal care to a female client, the nurse should wear gloves and wash the perineal area from front to back. This technique helps prevent the introduction of E. coli and other bacteria into the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Washing from back to front can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, leading to infections. Performing the procedure without gloves or having the client perform all care does not adhere to infection control practices. Pouring water from a sterile bottle alone may not ensure proper cleansing and infection prevention. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow proper perineal care guidelines.

Question 9 of 9

The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

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