High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by

Questions 71

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 9

High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

Question 4 of 9

A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

Question 7 of 9

Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During the grieving process, it is essential to have a support system in place. Options B, C, and D - a nurse, a social worker, and a family member, respectively, are individuals who can provide comfort, guidance, and practical assistance to someone who is grieving. However, a despondent friend, as stated in the question, is not an ideal choice for support during this period. A despondent friend is someone who is feeling extremely unhappy and discouraged, and may not have the emotional capacity to provide the needed support to a grieving individual. It is important for someone who is grieving to have support from individuals who can offer understanding, empathy, and strength, which a despondent friend may struggle to provide.

Question 8 of 9

The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.

Question 9 of 9

Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

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