NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care Questions
Question 1 of 9
During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.
Question 2 of 9
The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.
Question 3 of 9
What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2⅜ inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.
Question 6 of 9
A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.
Question 8 of 9
When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.