NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
As part of the teaching plan for a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the nurse should include that carbohydrate needs might increase when:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During active exercise, insulin sensitivity increases, leading to lower blood glucose levels. To balance the effect of increased insulin sensitivity, additional carbohydrates might be needed. The other choices are incorrect because: A) an infection typically raises blood glucose levels rather than increasing the need for carbohydrates; B) emotional upset can impact blood glucose but does not directly affect carbohydrate needs; C) while a large meal can raise blood glucose levels, it does not necessarily mean an increase in carbohydrate needs.
Question 2 of 9
Nonpharmacological pain management involves all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nonpharmacological pain management encompasses various strategies like hypnosis, psychological care, and physical and psychological modalities. The correct answer is 'pain-reducing drugs only' because nonpharmacological approaches do not solely rely on medications for pain management. Options A, B, and C are all valid components of nonpharmacological pain management. Hypnosis can help manage pain, psychological care including support groups can provide emotional support and coping strategies, and physical and psychological modalities encompass a wide range of interventions beyond just medication.
Question 3 of 9
In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.
Question 4 of 9
Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk are appropriate measures to promote sleep as they can help relax the body and induce sleepiness. Exercising vigorously, as suggested in choice A, can be counterproductive as it stimulates the body rather than relaxing it, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, may also increase alertness due to the temperature changes and the caffeine in tea, which can interfere with falling asleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, making it harder to fall asleep. Therefore, choice D is the best option to promote sleep in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.
Question 6 of 9
A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.
Question 7 of 9
Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.
Question 9 of 9
Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.