An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

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Question 1 of 9

An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Providing perineal care is not the least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client. Perineal care is essential for maintaining hygiene and preventing infection after delivery. Assessing the location and height of the fundus helps in monitoring postpartum uterine involution, which is crucial for assessing the recovery progress. Conducting a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, is important for understanding the support system available for the mother during the postpartum period. Monitoring the client for bleeding is critical to promptly identify and address any postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, providing perineal care is the least appropriate option among the choices provided as it is a fundamental aspect of postpartum care.

Question 3 of 9

A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

Question 4 of 9

The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.

Question 6 of 9

An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

Question 7 of 9

A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

Question 9 of 9

The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.

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