NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
Question 3 of 9
A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather subjective data regarding the client's health history. Which action does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the interview?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The physical environment of an interview room should provide optimal conditions to encourage a smooth interview and make the client feel comfortable. The nurse ensures that privacy is maintained to avoid interruptions during the interview. This helps create a safe space for the client to share sensitive information. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them is also important to promote open communication and build rapport. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet from the client respects their personal space and helps prevent the client from feeling overwhelmed. While adjusting the room lighting is beneficial for creating a comfortable atmosphere, ensuring privacy is crucial for establishing trust and confidentiality. Therefore, ensuring that the room is private is crucial for the success of the interview, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the importance of privacy in creating a conducive environment for the interview.
Question 4 of 9
An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.
Question 6 of 9
Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.
Question 7 of 9
All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.
Question 8 of 9
During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.