NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.
Question 4 of 9
When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.
Question 5 of 9
What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly occurs when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration but can also happen with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses typically occur after the drugs have been administered and absorbed, not before.
Question 6 of 9
A preschooler has successfully completed the test item 'counts 5 blocks' on the Denver II test. This pass is evidence of which of the following developmental concepts?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The ability of a preschooler to move five blocks to a piece of paper and state there are five blocks on the paper is evidence that the preschooler has the ability of conservation. This concept refers to the fact that the quantity of something doesn't change just because the shape, contour, and so on has changed. Five blocks are still five blocks, whether they are lying beside the paper, stacked on the paper, or moved to the paper. Centration is the ability to concentrate on one feature of a situation while neglecting all other aspects. Causality is based on the sequence of events, one event ordinarily following another. Non-reversibility refers to the inability of preschoolers to reverse their operations. They are only able to think forward, not retrace or reverse their thought processes.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On percussing the client's bladder, which finding does the nurse expect to note if the bladder is full?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When percussing a full bladder, the nurse expects to note dull sounds over the symphysis pubis. This is because a full bladder produces a flat or dull sound. Hyperresonance sounds are present with gaseous distention of the abdomen, not a full bladder. Bowel sounds are auscultated, not percussed, so hypoactive bowel sounds or an absence of bowel sounds are unrelated findings when assessing bladder distention.