Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.