A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

Questions 66

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

Question 5 of 9

After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

Question 6 of 9

When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

Question 8 of 9

When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

Access More Questions!

NCLEX PN Basic


$89/ 30 days

NCLEX PN Premium


$150/ 90 days