A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?

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Question 1 of 9

A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best advice to provide to the mother is 'All of the above.' It is recommended that the children wear insect repellent containing DEET and long-sleeved shirts and long pants when they are outside. This helps in preventing mosquito bites, which can transmit the West Nile Virus. Additionally, removing standing water from areas where the children play can help decrease the number of breeding mosquitoes, reducing the risk of contracting the virus. These methods work in combination to provide effective prevention against the West Nile Virus, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C individually address important prevention measures, but a combination of all three strategies is the most comprehensive approach to protect the children from contracting the illness.

Question 2 of 9

If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

Question 3 of 9

While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

Question 4 of 9

A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

Question 5 of 9

An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

Question 7 of 9

The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female client's home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter. Rugs and clutter are common causes of falls in the home, especially for the elderly or those with gait issues. Removing them can significantly reduce the risk of falls. While having a raised toilet seat and grab bars in the bathroom is important for safety, it is not the priority in this scenario. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless specifically advised by the physician, as maintaining mobility is essential for recovery. Lastly, the client should avoid wearing robes and socks while walking in the house to prevent tripping, slipping, or falling on slippery floors.

Question 8 of 9

A client who is immobilized secondary to traction is complaining of constipation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Colace. Colace is a stool softener that helps relieve constipation by drawing more water into the bowel, making the stool softer and easier to pass. This is beneficial for an immobilized client as it can help prevent constipation due to decreased mobility. Options A, B, and C (Advil, Anasaid, Clinocil) are not indicated for constipation relief. Advil and Anasaid are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief, while Clinocil is a fictional medication.

Question 9 of 9

What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

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