NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day Questions
Question 1 of 5
A homeless person has been admitted to the medical unit and placed on airborne precautions for suspected active TB infection. The nurse will assess for these signs and symptoms (Select one that doesn't apply).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weight gain.' When assessing for signs and symptoms of active TB infection, weight loss is typically observed rather than weight gain. Other common signs and symptoms include fatigue, bloody sputum, and diaphoresis during sleep. Fatigue, bloody sputum, and diaphoresis during sleep are all associated with active TB infection. Weight gain is not typically seen in active TB; instead, patients usually experience weight loss due to the impact of the infection on their overall health.
Question 2 of 5
Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.
Question 3 of 5
A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.
Question 4 of 5
Which is an example of a sentinel event?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.
Question 5 of 5
Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.
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