NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit. Stat lab values reveal Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, K+ 1.9, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. The nurse evaluates that the client is experiencing which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' The potassium level of 1.9 indicates low potassium levels, a condition known as hypokalemia. The other lab values are within normal ranges: Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. Hypernatremia (choice A) refers to high sodium levels, which are not present in this case. Myelosuppression (choice C) is a decrease in bone marrow activity, which is not indicated by the lab values provided. Leukocytosis (choice D) is an increase in white blood cells, which is also not present based on the given values.
Question 2 of 9
Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.
Question 3 of 9
A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.
Question 4 of 9
A man reports his wife is constantly cleaning, which interferes with family life. Friends avoid visiting due to feeling uncomfortable. The husband finds her cleaning even at night. The nurse should consult and recommend the husband help with therapy by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the stimuli in the home. The wife's behavior suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder, an anxiety disorder. By reducing stimuli in the environment, such as clutter or triggers that prompt cleaning, it helps in managing the condition and promoting a calmer atmosphere. Option A is incorrect as directly telling the wife to stop can escalate her anxiety. Option B is not the priority initially, as addressing the root cause is more crucial. Option D may reinforce the behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue.
Question 5 of 9
A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.
Question 6 of 9
The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
Question 7 of 9
What can the nurse instruct the mother of a teething 9-month-old infant to relieve discomfort?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Teething in infants can cause discomfort, but it is a normal process. Symptoms may include nighttime awakening, daytime restlessness, excess drooling, and temporary loss of appetite. The recommended approach to relieve teething discomfort includes providing cool liquids, a Popsicle, or hard foods like dry toast for chewing. These items can help soothe the infant's gums. Rubbing the gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water is not recommended as it can be harmful. OTC topical medications are unnecessary for teething discomfort. Scheduling a dental evaluation is not required solely for teething. It's important to avoid home remedies like baby aspirin and opt for safer options like cool liquids. If necessary, acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used under healthcare provider guidance to alleviate discomfort.
Question 8 of 9
The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
What is an effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is encouraging daily exercise. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is an anxiety disorder, and exercise can help release emotional energy, limit the time available for maladaptive behaviors, and direct the client's attention outward. Discussing the repetitive actions (choice A) may reinforce the behavior by providing attention to it. Insisting the client not to perform the repetitive act (choice B) can increase anxiety and resistance, as abruptly stopping the behavior may be challenging. Informing the client that the act is not necessary (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety and could invalidate the client's experiences, leading to increased distress. Encouraging daily exercise is a proactive intervention that can help manage symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by addressing core features of the disorder and promoting overall well-being.