NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.
Question 2 of 9
A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 9
A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.
Question 4 of 9
What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating a state of balance in the body's acid-base levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the ABG values provided do not point towards metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis. Instead, the values reflect a state of equilibrium where pH, PO2, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are within the normal range.
Question 5 of 9
A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's current Lithium levels. Which of the following values is outside the therapeutic range?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 1.3 mEq/L. The therapeutic range for Lithium levels typically falls between 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Values below or above this range can lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are within the therapeutic range of 1.0-1.2 mEq/L, making them appropriate levels for patient care.
Question 8 of 9
How can the nurse promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension, the nurse should consider applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area. These interventions can help alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual may exacerbate the pain. Choice B is incorrect as immobilizing the client may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to further complications. Choice D is also incorrect because while pain medication can be used, it is not the first-line treatment for muscle pain, spasms, and tension.
Question 9 of 9
A violation of a patient's confidentiality occurs if two nurses are discussing client information in which of the following scenarios?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'In the hallway outside the patient's room.' Discussing client information in a public area like a hallway can potentially breach patient confidentiality as it increases the risk of unauthorized individuals overhearing sensitive information. Choices A, B, and C involve discussing client information with other healthcare professionals in appropriate settings, which are more likely to maintain patient confidentiality compared to discussing in a public space like a hallway. Option D is the correct choice because it highlights a scenario where patient information is at higher risk of exposure to unauthorized individuals, hence violating patient confidentiality.