NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.
Question 2 of 5
On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.
Question 3 of 5
The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
Question 4 of 5
Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.
Question 5 of 5
After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.