NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.
Question 2 of 9
Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.
Question 4 of 9
When working with elderly clients, the healthcare provider should keep in mind that falls are most likely to happen to the elderly who are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'hospitalized.' Elderly individuals are at a higher risk of falls, especially when they are in new environments like hospitals due to unfamiliarity with the surroundings, medications, and potential mobility challenges. Being in a hospital can disrupt their usual routines and increase the risk of falls. Choice A ('in their 80s') is not as directly related to the increased risk of falls in a hospital environment. Choice B ('living at home') is a common setting for the elderly but does not address the specific risk associated with being hospitalized. Choice D ('living on only Social Security income') is unrelated to the risk of falls based on the environment.
Question 5 of 9
The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.
Question 6 of 9
A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.
Question 7 of 9
While caring for the following clients, a pediatric nurse tells the charge nurse she must leave due to a family emergency. Which client would the charge nurse reassign to an LPN?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a five-year-old in skeletal traction. This task is within the scope of practice for an LPN and would need minimal assistance from an RN. The children with diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell crisis, and dehydration require close observation, good assessment skills, IVF needs, and medications that would be better managed by an RN. Reassigning the child in skeletal traction to an LPN ensures appropriate care while allowing the RN to focus on the more critical cases.
Question 8 of 9
What is the role of an incident report in risk management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.