NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 2 of 5
Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing them has which of the following advantages?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When pulling a client, you work with the gravitational force instead of opposing it, which reduces the workload on your muscles. Choosing to pull a client minimizes the effort required compared to pushing. Choice B is incorrect because the force of gravity remains constant regardless of pushing or pulling. Choice C is irrelevant as stability is not directly related to the advantage of pulling over pushing. Choice D is inaccurate because pulling can still strain muscles if not executed correctly, but it generally reduces the overall workload in comparison to pushing.
Question 3 of 5
What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.
Question 4 of 5
Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
Question 5 of 5
What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.
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