NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.
Question 2 of 9
Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.
Question 3 of 9
What does carrying a donor card for organ donation mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carrying a donor card for organ donation signifies that an individual can decide to revoke their decision for organ donation at any point. This choice empowers the individual to change their mind regarding organ donation. The family or legally responsible party of a client still holds decision-making authority in the event that the client is considered for organ donation. When organ donation is being considered, all organs or tissues the donor wishes to donate are evaluated for donation suitability; it's not limited to just one organ or tissue. It's important to note that medical care for an individual is not altered to hasten the declaration of death for organ donation purposes; the focus is on providing immediate care and resuscitation to the individual.
Question 4 of 9
When should the biohazard emblem be affixed to containers according to the orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'when there is presence of blood and body fluids.' When handling body substances like blood and body fluids, the risk of transmission of infections increases. Federal regulations mandate warning labels on containers to alert employees and waste collectors. The biohazard emblem consists of a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, wound drainage, feces, and urine are examples of body fluids that can transmit infections and diseases to others. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the presence of the biohazard emblem is specifically linked to the handling of blood and body fluids, not to droplet precautions, contact isolation, or airborne transmission.
Question 5 of 9
Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.
Question 6 of 9
When making an occupied bed, what is important for the nurse to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When making an occupied bed, using a bath blanket or top sheet is important as it keeps the client warm and provides privacy, ensuring their comfort and dignity. Keeping the bed in the low position is crucial for the safety of the client, preventing falls and injuries. Constantly keeping side rails raised on both sides is unnecessary and may restrict the client's movement unnecessarily. Moving back and forth from one side to the other when adjusting the linens is inefficient and disrupts the workflow; it is more effective to work systematically from one side to the other to ensure proper bed-making.
Question 7 of 9
During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.
Question 8 of 9
Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following devices may be applicable to a bedridden patient to address potential venous insufficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a bedridden patient with potential venous insufficiency, sequential compression devices (SCDs) and compression stockings are appropriate choices. SCDs help improve venous return from the lower extremities by applying sequential pressure, aiding circulation. Compression stockings also assist in preventing blood from pooling in the legs by applying pressure to support venous return. Shear-reducing mattresses are not directly related to managing venous insufficiency, as they are designed to reduce friction and shear forces on the skin to prevent pressure ulcers. Non-skid socks are primarily used for fall prevention and have no direct impact on venous insufficiency.