When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

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Question 1 of 9

When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is teaching a client about sleep and gives background information on normal sleep patterns. Which of the following substances promotes sleep?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Serotonin is a substance found in the body that promotes sleep. It plays a role in the synthesis of a hypnogenic factor that directly induces sleep. Cortisol is a stress hormone that can disrupt sleep patterns. Alcohol can disrupt REM sleep and negatively impact sleep quality. Narcotics, like alcohol, can interfere with sleep architecture and lead to poor quality sleep. Therefore, the correct answer is serotonin as it is associated with promoting sleep, while the other substances listed can have negative effects on sleep patterns.

Question 3 of 9

A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: No metal objects may be worn while receiving magnetic resonance imaging due to safety risks involved with the strong magnet. The correct response by the nurse should prioritize the safety of the client. Allowing the client to wear the metal crucifix poses a risk of injury or interference with the imaging process. Option A is not appropriate as safety takes precedence over comfort in this situation. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the safety concerns associated with wearing metal objects during an MRI. Option D is also incorrect as it fails to acknowledge the safety issue involved and instead focuses solely on the importance to the client. It is important for the nurse to offer alternative forms of spiritual support that do not pose a risk during the MRI procedure.

Question 4 of 9

How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.

Question 5 of 9

Why might breast implants interfere with mammography?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Breast implants can interfere with mammography by potentially preventing the detection of masses. The presence of implants can obscure a clear view of breast tissue, making it difficult to identify abnormalities such as masses that may indicate breast cancer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because discomfort, contraindications, and dislodgment are not primary reasons why breast implants interfere with mammography. The main concern is the impedance of detecting abnormalities accurately due to the implants.

Question 6 of 9

How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

Question 7 of 9

Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction, however, is not a primary concern when treating pain in terminally ill clients. Terminally ill patients are usually not at risk of developing addiction to opioids due to their short life expectancy and the focus on pain management rather than the potential for addiction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'addiction.' Choices A, B, and C are essential considerations when managing clients on opioids for pain control.

Question 8 of 9

When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.

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