When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within the normal range, indicating a state of balance and homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), the PCO2 is normal (35-45 mmHg), and the HCO3 level is also normal (22-26 mEq/L). Choice A, 'metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect because the pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are not indicative of metabolic alkalosis. Choice C, 'respiratory acidosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 values are not elevated. Choice D, 'respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 levels are not decreased. Therefore, the ABG values provided do not correspond to any acid-base disturbance, confirming that the patient is in a state of homeostasis.

Correct Answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client undergoing hemodialysis is experiencing symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. These symptoms are indicative of an air embolus, a serious complication that can occur during hemodialysis. Air embolus happens when air enters the bloodstream and can lead to symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect and address this complication promptly to prevent further harm to the client. Choices A and D (Infection) are less likely in this case, as the symptoms presented are more suggestive of an air embolus rather than an infection. Choice B (Disequilibrium syndrome) is also less likely as the symptoms described are not typical of this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Air embolus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peaches, eggs, beef. These are good sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to nonheme iron. Heme iron is mainly found in animal-based foods like meat, poultry, and fish. Peaches, eggs, and beef are rich in iron and can help prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not include significant sources of heme iron. Cereals, kale, cheese, red beans, enriched breads, squash, legumes, and green beans are sources of nonheme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed by the body as heme iron. It is important to include heme iron sources in the diet for optimal iron absorption.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.