A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO®. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO® (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO®) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lordosis.' During pregnancy, the enlarging uterus places increased weight on the spine, causing an exaggerated inward curvature known as lordosis. This change alters mobility by shifting the center of gravity forward, leading to a compensatory change in posture. Scoliosis (choice A) is a sideways curvature of the spine, not typically associated with pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice B) is an exaggerated outward curvature of the spine, while ankylosing spondylitis (choice D) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the spine, neither of which are directly related to the spinal changes seen in pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.